A nontrivial trivial theorem: doing classical mathematics in Coq
 A reasonable start
 Solving the halting problem
 Recap and final thoughts
 References
 Appendix A: Extracting the computational content of the proof
 Appendix B: Proving LEM
Coq code for this post available here. Note that the proof scripts are meant to be stepped through interactively in Coq.
After having gone through most of the first 3 books in Software Foundations, and proving various theorems in classical real analysis in Coq, I decided to formalize some basic stuff from Algebra: Chapter 0, in particular the following statement.
Proposition 2.1. Assume \(A\) is nonempty, let \(f : A \to B\) be a function. \(f\) has a leftinverse if and only if it is injective.
This is a pretty trivial statement with a pretty trivial proof on paper (try it!), so I expected the Coq proof to be quite easy as well. What I didn’t know was that it would take me through a short journey through mathematical foundations, computability and some philosophy of mathematics as well. Why was it harder than expected, and what does it say about mathematics as a field? I will replicate the deadends I ran into here, to illustrate various points.
A reasonable start
On the first attempt, I translated the statements as directly as possible into Coq. The forward direction is easy.
Definition injective {A B} (f : A > B) :=
forall a' a'', a' <> a'' > f a' <> f a''.
Definition left_inverse {A B} (f : A > B) g := forall a, g (f a) = a.
Definition right_inverse {A B} (f : A > B) g := forall b, f (g b) = b.
Lemma P_2_1 {A B} (f : A > B) (s : A) :
(exists g, left_inverse f g) <> injective f.
Proof.
unfold left_inverse, injective.
split; intros H.
 intros a' a'' eq. destruct H as [g Hg].
congruence.

Now we prove the reverse direction, that if a function is injective, then it has a leftinverse. We have the following proof state:
A : Type
B : Type
f : A > B
s : A
H : forall a' a'' : A, a' <> a'' > f a' <> f a''
============================
exists g : B > A, forall a : A, g (f a) = a
The goal is exists g : B > A, ...
. In Coq we prove such statements
by providing the function \(g\) then showing indeed it is a
leftinverse. The paper proof constructed such a \(g\) as well, so just
translate!
Here is the paper proof:
\((\Longleftarrow)\) Now assume \(f : A\to B\) is injective. In order to construct a function \(g : B\to A\) we have to assign a unique value \(g(b)\in A\) for each element \(b\in B\). For this, choose any fixed element \(s\in A\) (which we can do because \(A\neq\emptyset\)); then set
\[{\displaystyle g(b)={ \begin{cases} a&{\text{if }}b = f(a)\,\text{for some}\,a\in A,\\[4px] s&{\text{if }b\notin \text{im } f} \end{cases}}}\]Solving the halting problem
We have a function \(g\) that, given a \(b\), returns an \(a\) if such an \(a\) satisfying \(b = f(a)\) exists, or returns a fixed element \(s\) of \(f\). Except, the devil is in the details, or in this case, in the word if. We have to make a decision depending on whether something is in the image or not. Actually, if we can do this for arbitrary sets \(A\) and \(B\), we can solve the halting problem. Here’s a short proof:
Assume we can always tell if \(b : B\) is in the image of \(f\) or not. Let \(M\) be a Turing machine. Define \(f : \mathbb{N} \to \mathbb{N}\) where \(f(n) = 0\) if \(M\) halts in \(n\) steps, otherwise return \(n+1\). This is obviously injective. So, what would \(g(0)\) give? It would return the number of steps that it takes for \(M\) to halt, or the fixed element if \(M\) diverges, but \(M\) is an arbitrary Turing machine, so that means we can solve the halting problem. (In fact you can also prove LEM from the theorem, see Appendix B).
In type theory, all the functions we ever write are computable by construction, so it actually turns out to be impossible to prove this lemma as stated. Thus, we need to strengthen our hypothesis, by assuming that the condition is decidable. In the Coq standard library, there is the following datatype:
(** [sumor] is an option type equipped with the justification of why
it may not be a regular value *)
Inductive sumor (A:Type) (B:Prop) : Type :=
 inleft : A > A + {B}
 inright : B > A + {B}
where "A + { B }" := (sumor A B) : type_scope.
Essentially this an option type that gives the value of type \(A\) or a proof why such a value cannot be produced. This is important because we want to use the left of the sum as the return value for the leftinverse of \(f\), and the right of the sum as a single bit to decide to return the default value \(s\).
(* Property of decidability of being in the image *)
Definition im_dec {A} {B} (f : A > B) :=
forall b, { a  f a = b } + ~ (exists a, f a = b).
(* If being in the image of an injective function f is decidable, it
has a left inverse. *)
Lemma injective_left_inverse {A B} (s : A) (f : A > B) :
im_dec f > injective f > { g  left_inverse f g }.
Proof.
unfold im_dec, injective; intros dec inj.
exists (fun b => match dec b with inl (exist _ a _) => a  inr _ => s end).
intros a'; destruct (dec (f a')) as [[a Ha]  contra].
With this assumption, we can continue the proof, but then we are stuck at following proof state.
A : Type
B : Type
s : A
f : A > B
dec : forall b : B, {a : A  f a = b} + (~ (exists a : A, f a = b))
inj : forall a' a'' : A, a' <> a'' > f a' <> f a''
a', a : A
Ha : f a = f a'
============================
a = a'
We need to prove \(a = a'\), which follows from \(f\) being injective,
however note that the hypothesis inj
states the contrapositive
claim.
In an undergrad discrete math class, one quickly learns about the
contrapositive law in classical logic, \((P \to Q) \leftrightarrow
(\neg Q \to \neg P)\). It turns out that in type theory (more
generally, in intuitionistic logic), the forward implication is
provable but the backward implication requires double negation
elimination, which is equivalent to LEM. As a result, we can make
prove a slightly more general theorem if we use the following
definition of injective
. The proof that our definition of
injectivity implies the one used in the book is trivial.
(* New definition of injective *)
Definition injective {A B} (f : A > B) :=
forall a' a'', f a' = f a'' > a' = a''.
(* Book's definition *)
Definition injective' {A B} (f : A > B) :=
forall a' a'', a' <> a'' > f a' <> f a''.
(* injective implies injective' *)
Theorem injective_injective' : forall {A B} (f : A > B),
injective f > injective' f.
Proof. cbv; auto. Qed.
With all this done, we can finally prove the backwards direction. One
last twist is that we’ll use a sigma type and make the proof
transparent using Defined.
so that we can extract the computational
content later.
Lemma injective_left_inverse {A B} (s : A) (f : A > B) :
im_dec f > injective f > { g  left_inverse f g }.
Proof.
unfold injective, left_inverse, im_dec.
intros dec inj.
(* It's decidable to check if b is in the image or not *)
exists (fun b => match dec b with inl (exist _ a _) => a  inr _ => s end).
intros a'.
destruct (dec (f a')) as [[a Ha]  contra].
 apply inj; auto.
 exfalso. apply contra. exists a'; auto.
Defined.
Recap and final thoughts
So, what did we learn from this notsotrivial proof of a trivial theorem?
 when we used the truthvalue of properties of values over arbitrary types (in this case, checking if an element of \(B\) is in the image of a function), we might want this property to be decidable
 sometimes we can restate things in a more general way that make it easier to prove in type theory, while still being classically equivalent
This experience left me feeling a bit philosophical. Note some of these points are subjective, and I speak from my perspective as an undergraduate in pure math and CS.
We lost a bit of symmetry. What used to be a simple iff is now two separate lemmas, where the backward direction takes a proof that finding a preimage is decidable. Did that make matters worse? I don’t think so. I think the central question is, what do we want from this theorem? We can obtain leftinverses of any injective function, presumably we would want compute with the leftinverse!
If we used the law of the excluded middle anywhere, we would lose computability. But by paying careful attention and performing minor adjustments to the theorem, we have still preserved computability, and in fact can use this to find leftinverses of injective functions (see Appendix A).
What does this say about using constructive type theory as a foundation for mathematics at large? This is a difficult question that far more qualified researchers such as Andrej Bauer can answer better than I can (I highly recommend his talk on constructive mathematics). My naïve view is that once a foundation such as set theory is fixed, it is inevitable that “implementation details” will be used to the fullest extent. You can “just” check if something is in the image of an arbitrary function and voila, you have your welldefined function! You can “just” construct the set of all Turing machines that halt. No words said about if it’s computable or not.
Another analogous situation I ran into was when trying to formalize concepts from differential topology, but the problem was at my very feet, I couldn’t prove a function restricted to the whole domain is equal to the original function, something taken for granted in the classical world. Or how about quotients? They are ubiquitous in mathematics, one can perform quotients of groups, rings, topological spaces and more. See this passionate discussion regarding setoid hell.
On the other hand, type theory feels like the right logical system to work in for CS. Most proofs in CS are constructive anyway, making them very easy to translate into Coq. You also get nicer properties: all functions are computable, all functions are Scottcontinuous, or even topologically continuous. You can also extract computational content from proofs. See Appendix A for how the leftinverse of the successor function can be obtained, something you couldn’t easily do in a settheoretic setting.
Do we have to give up LEM have all these things? Not necessarily. To quote Bauer from his talk,
Constructive mathematics keeps silent about the law of the excluded middle. We do not accept it, we do not deny it, we just don’t use it. Particular cases of law of excluded middle might be OK, but you have to establish them first.
While \(P \vee \neg P\) is not provable for an arbitrary proposition \(P\), if you can show it for some particular \(P\) (or a family of such \(P\)’s), you regain classical reasoning. For further excellent discussion on this topic, I recommend this Zulip discussion regarding LEM and decidability.
References
Appendix A: Extracting the computational content of the proof
Using the proofasprograms principle, we can in fact obtain leftinverses of functions, provided that being in the image is decidable and that the function is injective.
Definition eq_dec A := forall (a1 a2 : A), a1 = a2 \/ a1 <> a2.
Lemma nat_eq_dec : eq_dec nat.
Proof.
unfold eq_dec.
induction a1; destruct a2; auto.
destruct (IHa1 a2); auto using f_equal.
Qed.
Definition succ (n : nat) := S n.
Definition pred' : nat > nat.
Proof.
refine (fun n => _ (injective_left_inverse 0 succ _ _)).
 intros H. destruct H as [g Hg]. exact (g n).
 unfold im_dec.
induction b.
+ right. intros H. destruct H; discriminate.
+ left. refine (exist _ b _). reflexivity.
 unfold injective. intros a' a'' H. inversion H; auto.
Defined.
Eval compute in (pred' 1000). (* => 999 *)
Exercise (4 stars): define double n = n + n
and derive its
leftinverse halve
in a similar manner. You’ll need to prove that
being in the image of double
is decidable (hint: parity) and that
it’s injective, along with some additional lemmas as you see fit. You
might want to use the following induction principle to help. Don’t
forget to make some proofs transparent so that Eval compute in (halve
1000).
reduces to 500
! Send me an email if you solve it!
(* Idea: if a property P holds on 0 and 1, and n+2 whenever it holds on n,
then it holds for all n. *)
Definition nat_ind2 :
forall (P : nat > Type),
P 0 >
P 1 >
(forall n : nat, P n > P (S (S n))) >
forall n : nat, P n :=
fun P => fun P0 => fun P1 => fun PSS =>
fix f (n:nat) := match n with
0 => P0
 1 => P1
 S (S n') => PSS n' (f n')
end.
Appendix B: Proving LEM
Here’s something wild, we can prove LEM from the backward direction of the original theorem! (Assuming proof irrelevance)
Require Import ProofIrrelevance.
Lemma inj_left_inverse_implies_lem :
(forall {A B} (f : A > B), A > injective f > exists g, left_inverse f g)
> (forall (P : Prop), P \/ ~ P).
Proof.
unfold left_inverse. intros H P.
set (f := fun a : P + True => match a with  inl _ => inl I  inr _ => inr I end).
pose proof (H _ _ f (inr I)).
assert (Hf : injective f).
{
unfold injective; intros.
destruct a', a''; try discriminate.
 f_equal. apply proof_irrelevance.
 destruct t, t0. reflexivity.
}
specialize (H0 Hf).
destruct H0 as [g Hg].
destruct (g (inl I)) eqn:E; auto. right.
intros a. destruct t.
replace (inl I) with (f (inl a)) in E by auto.
rewrite Hg in E. inversion E.
Qed.